There are many "fair value" metrics that exist, but one of the most popular -- and the subject of this article -- is Professor Robert Shiller's Cyclically Adjusted Price to Earnings ratio; straight from his site, shown below:
The blue line indicates the current level of (get ready) 10 years' worth of trailing price-to-earnings ratio for the S&P 500. Got that? Professor Shiller takes an average of daily closes on a monthly basis for the S&P 500, then divides that number by 10 years' worth of earnings. The red line is self-explanatory -- the history of the 10-year.
What isn't so obvious - what does 21.17 actually mean? Simply, Shiller uses the long-term average of 16.37 and determines that the S&P 500 is roughly 22% overvalued from the average of monthly closes (in this example, Shiller uses 1122.08 for September). The result? About 860 on the S&P.
But wait, Cyclically Adjusted implies something, doesn't it? Very astute observation. Professor Shiller goes further into the nominal data and adjusts both price and earnings by the CPI from BLS. OK, once you stop laughing -- the only reason I gather that he does it -- is simply because that's what an economist would do. Check out the difference from the nominal numbers (actual if you prefer) and Shiller's CPI adjusted to make your own decision on the validity of the adjustment:
Looks the same to me, but then again, I am not an economist. Back in the REAL world (couldn't resist), whether the S&P traded nominally at 1480 in Oct. 2000 or on a real (CPI adjustment) basis of 1880 doesn't really matter. I can easily glean that the silly market was "overvalued" back then, similar to now.
Since I like to present information and let others decide how to decipher it, I created a table that answered many of the questions I possessed. Why 10 years (didn't we have record earnings, mortgage securitizations, and explosive derivative growth)? Why average 10 years' worth of trailing earnings -- why not use a Monthly Price to Earnings? What about historical long-term earnings growth? To answer these questions, I turbocharged his data and generated the following chart:
But wait, Cyclically Adjusted implies something, doesn't it? Very astute observation. Professor Shiller goes further into the nominal data and adjusts both price and earnings by the CPI from BLS. OK, once you stop laughing -- the only reason I gather that he does it -- is simply because that's what an economist would do. Check out the difference from the nominal numbers (actual if you prefer) and Shiller's CPI adjusted to make your own decision on the validity of the adjustment:
Looks the same to me, but then again, I am not an economist. Back in the REAL world (couldn't resist), whether the S&P traded nominally at 1480 in Oct. 2000 or on a real (CPI adjustment) basis of 1880 doesn't really matter. I can easily glean that the silly market was "overvalued" back then, similar to now.
Since I like to present information and let others decide how to decipher it, I created a table that answered many of the questions I possessed. Why 10 years (didn't we have record earnings, mortgage securitizations, and explosive derivative growth)? Why average 10 years' worth of trailing earnings -- why not use a Monthly Price to Earnings? What about historical long-term earnings growth? To answer these questions, I turbocharged his data and generated the following chart:




